I just read the NFV openstack document and there is a figure I couldn't interpret for myself:
I'm wandering about how the tier-1 routers can be connected to the N-VDS instead of the tier-0 router?
In my opinion the tier-1 router's uplink should always connect to tier-0 router therefore an inter-tier connection of subnet 100.64.0.0/10 is created by default.
so the question is, why can the tier-1 router be connected to N-VDS directly as shown in figure above?
B.T.W. another question is: can VMs utilize physical switch's VLAN network by connecting to nsx-t logical switches(traffic type set to VLAN) just like connecting to vSwitch portgroups?